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Junior Public Health Nurse Gr II/Nurse/Auxiliary Nurse Midwife Gr II 2026 Question Paper

99 questions with answers · Health

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1.The concept of health includes which of the following?

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A.Absence of disease only
B.Physical well-being only
C.Physical, mental and social well-being
D.Ability to work only

2.Which level of health care in India provides specialized services and advanced treatment?

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A.Primary level
B.Secondary level
C.Tertiary level
D.Community level

3.Which principle is essential during counselling?

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A.Maintaining confidentiality
B.Sharing personal opinions strongly
C.Ignoring client feelings
D.Speaking more than the client

4.The Primary Health Centre (PHC) mainly serves a population of approximately :

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A.5,000
B.10,000
C.30,000
D.1,00,000

5.Who is responsible for supervising the work of ANMs and ensuring implementation of health programs at the PHC level?

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A.Staff Nurse
B.Health Assistant (Female) / LHV
C.Pharmacist
D.Clerk

6.Most peripheral contact point between primary health care system and community:

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A.Anganwadi
B.Sub Centre
C.Primary Health Centre
D.Community Health Centre

7.The local self-government in the state is based on a three tier structure, known as:

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A.Panchayati Raj
B.Gram Sabha
C.Nyaya Panchayat
D.Zilla Parishad

8.Who plays an important role in collecting data for community need assessment at the village level?

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A.Pharmacist
B.ASHA Worker
C.Dentist
D.Surgeon

9.Which of the following is an example of audio-visual communication media?

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A.Poster
B.Radio
C.Television
D.Pamphlet

10.Which factor mainly determines the size and composition of a community?

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A.Population characteristics
B.Occupation only
C.Climate
D.Religion

11.The main purpose of counselling in community health is to:

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A.Diagnose disease
B.Help individuals make informed decisions about their health
C.Provide only treatment
D.Give orders to the patient

12.The key component of Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR):

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A.Institutional care only
B.Community participation
C.Expensive medical procedures
D.Specialized hospital services only

13.The main aim of National Health Policies is to:

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A.Increase hospital expenses
B.Improve the health status of the population
C.Focus only on urban areas
D.Promote private hospitals

14.Which communication method is most effective for behaviour change in the community?

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A.Mass media only
B.One way communication
C.Written communication only
D.Interpersonal communication

15.Which of the following is NOT a communicable disease?

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A.Malaria
B.Leprosy
C.Tuberculosis
D.Cancer

16.Which of the following is best for technical supervision?

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A.Check-lists
B.Care plan
C.Note book
D.Viva

17.Which of the following best explains "Community Participation" in community dynamics?

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A.Only government involvement
B.Health workers making all decisions
C.Active involvement of people in planning and implementing programs
D.People receiving services passively.

18.The "proximate principles" of nutrients are:

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A.Minerals
B.Macro nutrients
C.Micro nutrients
D.Vitamins

19.Linoleic Acid is an example of which Fatty Acid:

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A.Saturated
B.Monounsaturated
C.Polyunsaturated
D.All the above

20.An alternate name of pantothenic acid:

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A.Vitamin B2
B.Vitamin C
C.Vitamin B5
D.Vitamin B6

21.Bitot's spot is associated with deficiency of:

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A.Vitamin D
B.Vitamin A
C.Vitamin K
D.None of the above

22.An infectious disease that can be prevented by personal hygiene:

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A.Marasmus
B.Glaucoma
C.Trachoma
D.Beri-beri

23.The scale which is used to assess the risk for pressure sore development:

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A.Glasgow Coma Scale
B.Braden Scale
C.Wong Baker Faces Scale
D.All the above

24.The center that controls the endocrine and nervous system:

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A.Hypophysis Cerebri
B.Hypothalamus
C.Cerebellum
D.None of the above

25.Which of the following infectious agent causes Weil's disease?

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A.Leptospirae
B.Virus
C.Bacteria
D.Protozoa

26.The economical method of softening of hard water on a large scale is:

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A.Boiling
B.Clark's process
C.Permutit process
D.None of the above

27.Chemical formula of bleaching powder:

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A.CaOCl2
B.CaCl2
C.CaCO3
D.HOCl

28.Which of the following statement is correct about the health Hazards of improper excreta disposal?

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A.Soil pollution
B.Water pollution
C.Contamination of food
D.All of the above

29.A specialized end-of-life care for terminal illness:

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A.Supportive care
B.Hospital care
C.Hospice
D.None of the above

30.Signs and symptoms of maladjustment:

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A.Sleep problems
B.Substance Abuse
C.Fatigue
D.All the above

31.Senseless repetition of words that are not understandable:

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A.Palilalia
B.Verbigeration
C.Neologism
D.Echolalia

32.A state of well-being in which an individual cope-up with normal stresses of life:

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A.Health
B.Co-operation
C.Mental health
D.All the above

33.Which of the following statement is/are correct about components of environment? (i) Physical (ii) Genetic (iii) Social (iv) Biologic

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A.Only (i) & (iii)
B.Only (ii) & (iv)
C.Only (i), (iii) & (iv)
D.All of the above (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)

34.The "Iceberg Phenomenon" in disease refers to:

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A.Only severe cases to report
B.Seasonal occurance of disease
C.Large number of subclinical cases hidden beneath diagnosed cases
D.Diseases occurring in cold climates

35.Which of the following is the most effective measure to break the chain of infection in a hospital?

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A.Use of antibiotics
B.Isolation of patients
C.Immunization
D.Hand Hygiene

36.The disease which is transmitted through vector is:

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A.Measles
B.Malaria
C.Cholera
D.Tuberculosis

37.Which of the following is an example of passive immunity?

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A.Measles vaccination
B.BCG vaccination
C.Transfer of antibodies from mother to baby
D.Antibody formation after infection

38.Catch-up Vaccination means:

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A.Given as per National Schedule from birth
B.Given to individuals who missed vaccination of the recommended age
C.Given to enhance immunity after primary doses
D.Given to the entire population

39.What is the correct order of steps after collecting the specimen?

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A.Transport-Label-Document
B.Label-Transport-Document
C.Document-Label-Transport
D.Transport-Document-Label

40.Which factor affects the effectiveness of disinfection?

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A.Temperature
B.Concentration of disinfectants
C.Contact time
D.All the above

41.A carrier is defined as:

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A.A person who shows severe symptoms
B.A person who transmits disease without showing symptoms
C.A person who is immune to disease
D.A person undergoing treatment

42.Which of the following is a primary protective strategy during an epidemic?

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A.Isolation of cases
B.Vaccination
C.Rehabilitation
D.Case management

43.Which method of sterilization is most suitable for heat sensitive medical equipment?

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A.Autoclaving
B.Hot Air oven
C.Ethylene Oxide gas
D.Incineration

44.Fever characterized by a variation of temperature more than two degrees between morning and evening but does not return to normal:

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A.Intermittent fever
B.Remittent fever
C.Swinging fever
D.Inverse fever

45.Which of the following is the most specific and gold standard test for the diagnosis of active pulmonary tuberculosis?

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A.Chest X-ray
B.Mantoux test
C.Sputum culture
D.ESR

46.In the 'FAST' assessment for stroke, What does the letter 'T' stands for:

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A.Treatment
B.Time
C.Temperature
D.Thrombolysis

47.Oliguria is a condition in which urine volume is less than:

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A.400 ml
B.800 ml
C.100 ml
D.1000 ml

48.Twisting of bowel is known as:

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A.Intussusception
B.Volvulus
C.Hernia
D.Stricture

49.Decreased platelet count in blood is known as:

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A.Anaemia
B.Pancytopenia
C.Neutropenia
D.Thrombocytopenia

50.Drugs that inhibit the cough reflex:

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A.Antihistamines
B.Antiemetics
C.Antitussives
D.Anticoagulants

51.First line drug in the management of anaphylaxis :

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A.Hydrocortisone
B.Chlorpheniramine
C.Salbutamol
D.Epinephrine

52.During high quality CPR in an adult which of the following combination best reflect current guidelines regarding compression depth, rate, recoil and interruption :

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A.Depth 4-5 cm, rate 80-100/min, allow partial recoil, interruption < 20 second
B.Depth 5-6 cm, rate 100-120/min, allow full recoil, interruption < 10 second
C.Depth > 6 cm, rate 120-140/min, allow full recoil, interruption < 15 second
D.Depth 3-4 cm, rate 90-110/min, allow partial recoil, interruption < 5 second

53.Which type of fracture is typically seen in osteoporosis?

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A.Spiral fracture
B.Avulsion fracture
C.Compression fracture
D.Green stick fracture

54.Which of the following statement is/are correct about the laws of growth? (i) Growth and development of children is a continuous and orderly process. (ii) The foetus grows fast in the first half of gestation. (iii) In the early postnatal period the velocity of growth is slow. (iv) Growth decelerates after puberty and then ceases altogether

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A.Only (ii) & (iii)
B.Only (i), (iii) & (iv)
C.Only (i), (ii) & (iv)
D.All of the above (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)

55.Indicator of chronic malnutrition with low height for age is:

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A.Wasting
B.Underweight
C.Stunting
D.Undernutrition

56.Separation anxiety in children is also called:

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A.Persistent depressive disorder
B.Clinical depression
C.Anaclitic depression
D.Anxiety disorder

57.Which among the following statement is/are correct about head circumference? (i) Average head circumference measures about 35 cm at birth (ii) At 6 months, it is about 40 cm (iii) At 24 months, it is about 45 cm (iv) At 12 years, it becomes almost same as adult

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A.Only (i) & (iv)
B.Only (ii), (iii) & (iv)
C.Only (ii) & (iv)
D.All the above (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)

58."Baggy pants appearance" is seen in :

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A.Kwashiorkor
B.Marasmic Kwashiorkor
C.Osteomalacia
D.Marasmus

59.The first to receive protection and relief in times of disaster is:

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A.Pregnant mothers
B.Children
C.Old-aged
D.Women

60.Development of breasts during puberty in girls is termed as:

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A.Adrenarche
B.Menarche
C.Thelarche
D.Gynecomastia

61.'Ugly duckling stage' refers to:

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A.Toddler
B.Pre-schooler
C.Schooler
D.Adolescent

62.ICDS services are provided at a centre called:

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A.Anganwadi
B.Sub-centre
C.Primary health centre
D.School

63.Deficiency of Vitamin D leads to:

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A.Bitot's spots
B.Pellagra
C.Rickets
D.Keratomalacia

64.In school health programme deworming is done :

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A.Weekly
B.Annually
C.Biannually
D.Monthly

65.A short-term type of restraint used in infants and small children during examinations and treatment of head and neck is :

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A.Abdominal restraint
B.Jacket restraint
C.Mummy restraint
D.Extremity restraint

66.The adolescent health programme under National Rural Health Mission as a part of RCH II is:

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A.JSY
B.JSSK
C.ARSH
D.CSSM

67.Ovulation occurs on approximately which day of a 28 day menstrual cycle?

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A.Day 7
B.Day 14
C.Day 21
D.Day 28

68.Which type of female pelvis is most favorable for vaginal delivery?

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A.Android
B.Anthropoid
C.Gynecoid
D.Platypelloid

69.The largest transverse diameter of the fetal skull is:

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A.Biparietal diameter
B.Suboccipitobregmatic
C.Mentovertical
D.Occipitofrontal

70.At what gestational age does a fetus become viable in India?

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A.16 weeks
B.20 weeks
C.24 weeks
D.32 weeks

71.Fetal heart rate normally ranges between:

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A.60-100 bpm
B.110-160 bpm
C.160-200 bpm
D.200-240 bpm

72.Which hormone is responsible for positive pregnancy test?

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A.Estrogen
B.Progesterone
C.hCG
D.hPL

73.Recommended daily dose of folic acid in first trimester to prevent NTDs :

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A.100 mcg
B.400 mcg
C.1 mg
D.5 mg

74.Danger sign in pregnancy requiring immediate referral is:

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A.Mild leg swelling
B.Vaginal Bleeding
C.Heart burn
D.Constipation

75.Minimum hemoglobin level considered normal in pregnancy:

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A.9 g/dL
B.10 g/dL
C.11 g/dL
D.12 g/dL

76.Drug of choice for active management of 3rd stage of labour is:

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A.Methergine
B.Oxytocin 10 IU IM
C.Misoprostol
D.Carboprost

77.APGAR score is assessed at:

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A.1 and 5 minutes after birth
B.10 and 20 minutes after birth
C.Only at 1 minute
D.Only at 5 minutes

78.Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) promotes:

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A.Home delivery by TBA
B.Institutional delivery with cash incentive
C.Free IFA tablets only
D.Female sterilization

79.Most common medical disorder complicating pregnancy in India:

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A.Heart disease
B.Diabetes
C.Thyroid disorder
D.Anemia

80."Snow-storm" appearance on USG is seen in:

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A.Missed abortion
B.Complete mole
C.Ectopic pregnancy
D.Blighted ovum

81.Shirodkar procedure commonly used in which type of abortion?

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A.Induced abortion
B.Habitual abortion
C.Missed abortion
D.Threatened abortion

82.Name of the psychiatric disorder which is seen in puerperium with sudden onset usually within 4 days of delivery especially with past history of psychosis :

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A.Postpartum blues
B.Postpartum depression
C.Postpartum psychosis
D.Psychosis

83.What are the risk factors of RDS in newborns?

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A.Prematurity
B.C-Section Delivery
C.Diabetic mothers
D.All of the above

84.It is the congenital malformations in newborn showing features of vomiting being copious, bile stained usually common in babies born of mothers with hydramnios, IUGR and Down's syndrome:

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A.Duodenal atresia
B.Omphalocele
C.Diaphragmatic hernia
D.Esophageal atresia

85.What diseases does Human papilloma virus (HPV) cause?

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A.Genital warts
B.Cervical Cancers
C.STD
D.Only (A) and (B)

86.One third or more pregnant women can be asymptomatic vaginal carrier of which bacterial infection with recurring colonization?

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A.Chlamydia
B.Group B Streptococcus
C.Syphilis
D.Gonococcal Infection

87.What program has the government of India started in 1951 to stabilize the population growth with the objective of reducing birth rate?

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A.National family welfare program
B.National population policy
C.RCH program
D.CSSM

88.What is a neurological syndrome in babies characterised by disordered movement, posture, tone and power and is often associated with intellectual deficit and epilepsy?

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A.Cerebral Palsy
B.Facial Palsy
C.Floppy Baby Syndrome
D.Convulsions

89.What is the complex endocrine disorder associated with long term anovulation and an excess of androgen circulation in the blood?

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A.Ovarian Cyst
B.PCOS
C.Fibroid Polyp
D.Fibroid tumors

90.What is an involuntary loss of products of conception prior to 28 weeks of gestation?

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A.Spontaneous abortion
B.Inevitable abortion
C.Missed abortion
D.Threatened abortion

91.Which drug is used in the management of pregnancy induced hypertension to prevent pre-eclampsia and intra-uterine growth retardation?

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A.Methyldopa
B.Aspirin
C.Diazepam
D.MgSO4

92.Which method is used for assessing whether the cervix is favourable for induction of labour?

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A.Partograph
B.Bishop score
C.Cervical ripening
D.Oxytocin infusion

93.What is the term refers to state in which a couple has tried unsuccessfully to have a child for a year or more?

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A.Infertility
B.Subfertility
C.Primary Infertility
D.Secondary Infertility

94.In the public sector, a ______ is the most peripheral and first contact point between the primary health care system and the community.

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A.Sub-Health Centre (Sub-centre)
B.Primary Health Centre
C.Community Health Centre
D.District Hospital

95.MIES means:

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A.Management Information Education System
B.Management Information Eradication System
C.Management Information and Evaluation System
D.Management Information Encouraging System

96.______ are an essential tool of communication between the members of the health team.

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A.Doctors
B.Nurse
C.Reports and records
D.Patients

97.Which of the following statement is/are correct about ASHA workers? (i) ASHA is an important link of National Rural Health Mission [NRHM] (ii) ASHA does not coordinate with rural population in identifying and resolving various health related programmes and problems at appropriate time.

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A.Only (ii)
B.Only (i)
C.All of the above
D.None of the above

98.National Goiter Control Programme was renamed as:

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A.National Iron Deficiency Control Programme
B.National Leprosy Eradication Programme
C.National Filaria Control Programme
D.National Iodine Deficiency Disorder Control Programme (NIDDCP)

99.Which of the following statement is/are correct? (i) Self development is necessary for development of education. (ii) Continuing education is the part of self development.

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A.Only (i)
B.Both (i) and (ii)
C.Only (ii)
D.None of the above